Questions & Replies about Divorce and Remarriage by David Instone-Brewer
Read the book    Buy a copy	I read and reply to all emails though sometimes the reply is very brief, due to pressure of time. I like to get questions - especially if they are new. Many people ask questions which are already covered in these Questionas & Replies. Please take a moment to look at previous emails before you write. Pastoral support doesn't really work by email, so if you need this, I'd encourage you to find a local fellow Christian or minister. Their personal views on this subject don't matter too much if they are good at listening, both to you and to God. David Instone-Brewer	Read portions    Buy a copy

Emailed question/comment:
	Jesus in the Gospels only names one ground for divorce –  'porneia'  -- which is interpreted in various ways (adultery, sexual immorality etc). But he doesn't mention abuse or abandonment which you say is taught by Ex.21.10f. If Jesus was silent about this, shouldn't we be silent as well?
Reply:
	Jesus didn't affirm the law of Ex.21.10f but Paul uses it as the basis of 1Cor.7 to teach the obligations in marriage included emotional support (v3-5) and material support (vv 32-35). The grounds for divorce of emotional or material neglect were based on Ex.21.10f because this says that if they are not given, the woman can go free. These were the most important verses regarding divorce in 1st C Judaism and are cited or alluded to in the early marriage certificates. The fact that Jesus is silent on this important part of the OT and Jewish law could mean that he disagreed with it but he didn't want to upset his listeners. Or it could mean that he agreed with it so he didn't need to say anything. He didn't say anything about there being only one God, or that rape is wrong, or that you should marry before sleeping with someone. Does this mean that he disagreed with these OT teachings? He said lots of other things about marriage & divorce, and all of it in disagreement with a large proportion of Judaism, but in this matter where all Jews agreed (that Ex.21.10f provides grounds for divorce) he said nothing. My conclusion is that Jesus agreed with them, because if he didn't, his silence was very cowardly and totally confusing.
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