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Normally I would say: Come back when you have read the book! –
but I will make reply accessible to everyone, so no-one else will
need to ask this question: -
First of all, I have found that you are in good company, because
God is a divorcee, and the Church, the holy bride of Christ, is
marrying a divorcee. God's marriage to Israel, whom he had to
divorce because of her adultery, was not regarded as just a metaphor
by the prophets. They agonised about whether God would be able to
remarry after this divorce, and treated it as a difficult legal
matter. See my "THree Weddings and a Divorce" and esp. Jer.3.
Secondly, the NT bars polygamists and womanisers from being
church leaders, not remarried people. The "man of one wife" can mean
either of these things, but it can't really mean someone who has
legally remarried. Otherwise it would include those who have
remarried after widowhood as well, and Paul recommends this.
Thirdly, the whole idea of divorce as a sin is based on a
misunderstanding of scripture. Breaking up the marriage by breaking
the marriage vows is a sin, and this leads to divorce. Think of it
like a murder of marriage. Murder is the sin, death is the result,
and the death certificate (like the divorce certificate) simply
records the fact. Malachi records God's anger against those who
break their covenant with their bride, by being unfaithful. He
doesn't hate the divorcee, but the cause of divorce.
Fourthly (and this is the difficult one) Jesus' teaching is
usually misunderstood. He was speaking against the new Hillelite
doctrine of divorce for "any matter", based on an interpretation of
Dt.24:1 "a matter of indecency". He said that on the basis of this
text one cannot get divorced except for a matter of indecency. If
one got divorced for "any matter", this was an invalid divorce, so
when you remarry you are actually committing adultery, because you
are still married to your first partner. This simple message has
become confused by abbreviation (esp in Mark), though no first
century Jew would have found it confusing. They knew the context
well enough.
Lastly 1Cor.7.15 means that anyone who has a valid divorce is
free to remarry. Some people think that 'not bound' means 'not bound
to the marriage', but he is speaking to people who have been
deserted, which was a legal way to divorce someone in the 1st
century Graeco-Roman world. Most people think that it only applies
to Christians who have been deserted by non-Christians, but Paul has
told Christians that they must not use desertion to divorce their
partners, so he assumes that the deserter is a non-Christian. It
applies just as well to someone divorced by a Christian. Divorce
certificates at the time always said: "You are free to marry anyone
you wish". Any first century person who read 1Cor.7.15 would
understand it to mean that a deserted spouse was free to remarry. It
can sometimes sound different to modern ears, but Paul was writing
to first century readers.
When we read scripture, we have to
listen through their ears in order to hear God's voice. Paul does
not state his reasoning, except to say that God has called us to
peace, which was a rabbinic phrase meaning 'for the sake of
pragmatism'.
Remarriage is permitted for the wronged partner
irrespective of the grounds for divorce, because Paul allows it even
if they have been divorced by the Roman divorce-by-separation (1
Cor.7.15) which (like modern divorce) does not require any grounds
or any consent by the other party. |
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